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Doesn't the example of the 1930s and then WW2 appear at least to suggest the opposite?
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OK then, a question (probably best aimed at EGB, but anyone who knows the answer can feel free to enlighten me)...
During WWII Britain had a coalition government.... Led by Churchill.. does that mean that party politics and the backbiting and undermining of each other that politicians can make a career out of, was suspended for the duration?
In which case GB would in effect have been a one-party state? Possibly???